How to pass Isaca CISA Real Exam in 24 Hours [training 91-100]

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2016 Jul CISA practice test

Q91. - (Topic 3) 

Which of the following reduces the potential impact of social engineering attacks? 

A. Compliance with regulatory requirements 

B. Promoting ethical understanding 

C. Security awareness programs 

D. Effective performance incentives 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

Because social engineering is based on deception of the user, the best countermeasure or defense is a security awareness program. The other choices are not user-focused. 


Q92. - (Topic 2) 

Which of the following online auditing techniques is most effective for the early detection of errors or irregularities? 

A. Embedded audit module 

B. Integrated test facility 

C. Snapshots 

D. Audit hooks 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

The audit hook technique involves embedding code in application systems for the examination of selected transactions. This helps an IS auditor to act before an error or an irregularity gets out of hand. An embedded audit module involves embedding specially-written software in the organization's host application system so that application systems are monitored on a selective basis. An integrated test facility is used when it is not practical to use test data, and snapshots are used when an audittrail is required. 


Q93. - (Topic 3) 

Which of the following is a risk of cross-training? 

A. Increases the dependence on one employee 

B. Does not assist in succession planning 

C. One employee may know all parts of a system 

D. Does not help in achieving a continuity of operations 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

When cross-training, it would be prudent to first assess the risk of any person knowing all parts of a system and what exposures this may cause. Cross-training has the advantage of decreasing dependence on one employee and, hence, can be part of succession planning. It also provides backup for personnel in the event of absence for any reason and thereby facilitates the continuity of operations. 


Q94. - (Topic 4) 

The reason for establishing a stop or freezing point on the design of a new system is to: 

A. prevent further changes to a project in process. 

B. indicate the point at which the design is to be completed. 

C. require that changes after that point be evaluated for cost-effectiveness. 

D. provide the project management team with more control over the project design. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

Projects often have a tendency to expand, especially during the requirements definition phase. This expansion often grows to a point where the originally anticipated cost-benefits are diminished because the cost of the project has increased. When this occurs, it is recommended that the project be stopped or frozen to allow a review of all of the cost-benefits and the payback period. 


Q95. - (Topic 2) 

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of using computer forensic software for investigations? 

A. The preservation of the chain of custody for electronic evidence 

B. Time and cost savings 

C. Efficiency and effectiveness 

D. Ability to search for violations of intellectual property rights 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

The primary objective of forensic software is to preserve electronic evidence to meet the rules of evidence. Choice B, time and cost savings, and choice C, efficiency and effectiveness, are legitimate concerns that differentiate good from poor forensic software packages. Choice D, the ability to search for intellectual property rights violations, is an example of a use of forensic software. 


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Q96. - (Topic 1) 

Who is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy? 

A. The board of directors 

B. Middle management 

C. Security administrators 

D. Network administrators 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The board of directors is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy. 


Q97. - (Topic 1) 

Which of the following can help detect transmission errors by appending specially calculated bits onto the end of each segment of data? 

A. Redundancy check 

B. Completeness check 

C. Accuracy check 

D. Parity check 

Answer: A 

Explanation: A redundancy check can help detect transmission errors by appending especially calculated bits onto the end of each segment of datA. 


Q98. - (Topic 4) 

A proposed transaction processing application will have many data capture sources and outputs in paper and electronic form. To ensure that transactions are not lost during processing, an IS auditor should recommend the inclusion of: 

A. validation controls. 

B. internal credibility checks. 

C. clerical control procedures. 

D. automated systems balancing. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

Automated systems balancing would be the best way to ensure that no transactions are lost as any imbalance between total inputs and total outputs would be reported for investigation and correction. Validation controls and internal credibility checksare certainly valid controls, but will not detect and report lost transactions. In addition, although a clerical procedure could be used to summarize and compare inputs and outputs, an automated process is less susceptible to error. 


Q99. - (Topic 3) 

Which of the following is normally a responsibility of the chief security officer (CSO)? 

A. Periodically reviewing and evaluating the security policy 

B. Executing user application and software testing and evaluation 

C. Granting and revoking user access to IT resources 

D. Approving access to data and applications 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

The role of a chief security officer (CSO) is to ensure that the corporate security policy and controls are adequate to prevent unauthorized access to the company assets, including data, programs and equipment. User application and other software testing and evaluation normally are the responsibility of the staff assigned to development and maintenance. Granting and revoking access to IT resources is usually a function of network or database administrators. Approval of access to data and applications is the duty of the data owner. 


Q100. - (Topic 1) 

A critical function of a firewall is to act as a: 

A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN. 

B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN. 

C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources. 

D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network resources. 



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