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2016 May HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:
Q251. What is the function of TRACERT utility?
A. Trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer.
B. Provide DNS server address.
C. Provide the host name of the routing device.
D. Trace the MAC address of the target host's network adapter.
Explanation: TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems.
Q252. Which of the following statements are true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. You can connect up to 127 peripheral devices to a single USB port.
B. You can connect up to 16 peripheral devices to a single USB port.
C. USB does not support Plug n Play installation.
D. USB supports hot plugging.
Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a standard-based, external bus for a computer that brings the Plug and Play capability of hardware devices. You can use a single USB port to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, including speakers, CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners, and cameras. USB supports hot plugging, which means that you can install or remove a USB device while the computer is running and the operating system automatically reconfigures itself accordingly. USB eliminates the need to install internal cards into dedicated computer slots and reconfigure the system.
Q253. Your responsibility as healthcare information technologist is to ensure the billing and accounting practices of the facility are performed in the most efficient manner. Which of the following types of information technology are you responsible for?
A. Clinical IT
B. Infrastructure IT
C. Financial IT
D. Administrative IT
Explanation: Applications of financial information technology are used to improve the efficiency of billing and accounting practices. Answer: D is incorrect. Administrative IT is incorrect as these applications are used to make staff scheduling, patient registration and payroll procedures more efficient. Answer: A is incorrect. Clinical IT is incorrect as these applications are used for prescription of drugs and ordering of laboratory tests and medical procedures. Answer: B is incorrect. Infrastructure IT is incorrect as these applications support the infrastructure of the health care facility. These applications include voice recognition for medical records and medical transcription as well as bar coding applications for medical devices and drugs.
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Q254. A patient comes into the hospital with pain in her chest and the physician wants to determine if there are abnormalities in the electrical impulses of her heart that could indicate damage. What medical device measures the electrical signal of the heart and often prints it out in a waves format?
Explanation: An EKG is the acronym for an electrocardiogram is the recording from electrodes connected to the skin in key places on the body, which can measure the electrical signals of the heart muscle as it pumps. Changes or abnormalities in the signal waves from the heart muscle can indicate disease or injury to the heart muscle. Answer: D is incorrect. During a diagnostic ultrasonography, an ultrasound device uses inaudible sound waves to bounce off of structures inside the body and return an image of those structures, including tendons, muscles, vessels and internal organs. An ultrasound can be done of many structures, including obstetric use to visualize a growing fetus. The heart can be looked at with a diagnostic ultrasound, but this is rare as a first assessment for chest pain and this does not measure the electrical signals of the heart. Answer: C is incorrect. EEG is the acronym for an electrocencephalograph, or a recording of measurements of the electrical impulses of the brain through the scalp, not the electrical impulses of the heart. Answer: B is incorrect. CT is an acronym for X-ray computed tomography. It's a computed three-dimensional picture of multiple two dimensional x-rays mapped together to form a three dimensional image. Cardiac CT can be very useful, but it is not the first line of treatment for initial chest pain and does not measure the electrical signals of the heart.
Q255. You are the privacy officer in charge of setting up the policies and procedures for protecting patient information within your covered entity. You have studied HIPAA's requirements and are now faced with determining what kinds of policies you need to implement. Which of the follow do you NOT need to implement?
A. A policy limiting staff members from naming the covered entity for which they work outside the office.
B. A policy governing the ongoing training of how to handle PHI for employees.
C. A policy outlining which employees have access to electronic protected health information (EPHI).
D. A policy defining what role management will play in the oversight and compliance for security controls.
Explanation: HIPAA protects patient information, not the name of medical practices. An employee can certainly say where he works to his spouse or even to another company to which he might apply. Answer: B is incorrect. Ongoing training is an essential part of HIPAA compliance. Answer: C is incorrect. This is required, as this is the heart of EPHI concerns. Answer: D is incorrect. There must be clearly defined management roles, which become especially helpful during audits and when HIPAA concerns or complaints arise.
Q256. One of your job duties is to review all delinquent medical records. You are required by the Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations to perform this task at least once per which of the following time frames?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
Explanation: The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations requires any health care facility to institute a review of all delinquent medical records to be performed at least once per 90 days. Answer: A is incorrect. The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations requires any health care facility to institute a review of all delinquent medical records to be performed at least once per 90 days. Answer: B is incorrect. The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations requires any health care facility to institute a review of all delinquent medical records to be performed at least once per 90 days. Answer: D is incorrect. The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations requires any health care facility to institute a review of all delinquent medical records to be performed at least once per 90 days.
Realistic comptia healthcare it technician hit-001 authorized cert guide pdf:
Q257. A hospital wants to set up an EMR (electronic medical records) system that allows specialists to have equal access to the PHI regarding a patient who has multiple injuries. The hospital can allow more than one type of physician to obtain the information without additional authorization, if it involves.
A. A physician who is not treating the patient but would like to market his services
B. There are no situations where information can be exchanged without additional authorization.
C. Consults between the patient's care providers (i.e. heart surgeon and general surgeon)
D. A visiting a nurse from another facility would like to see how the EMR system works.
Explanation: Under HIPAA, an entity may disclose PHI for the purpose of consultation between treating health care providers. Answer: A is incorrect. Any PHI must be authorized by the patient to be used for marketing purposes Answer: B is incorrect. Not true. HIPAA allows disclosure for Treatment, Payment and Healthcare Operations with proper notification. Answer: D is incorrect. The visiting nurse is not involved in the treatment, payment or healthcare operations pertinent to this patient.
Q258. You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a TCP-based network. You want to connect a new client computer to the network. You have configured the computer for receiving IP address automatically. Which of the following services is required to be running on the network?
D. DHCP Relay Agent
Explanation: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers, so that they can communicate with other network services. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network. It runs on servers only. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. Answer: A is incorrect. Domain Name System (DNS) is a hierarchical naming system used for locating domain names on private TCP/IP networks and the Internet. It provides a service for mapping DNS domain names to IP addresses and vice versa. DNS enables users to use friendly names to locate computers and other resources on an IP network. TCP/IP uses IP addresses to locate and connect to hosts, but for users, it is easier to use names instead of IP address to locate or connect to a site. For example, users will be more comfortable in using the host name www.company.com rather than using its IP address 18.104.22.168. Answer: B is incorrect. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts. Answer: D is incorrect. DHCP Relay Agent is used in a routed network to communicate with the DHCP server on the other segment. The relay agent relays Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) message traffic between the DHCP-enabled clients on a local physical network and a remote DHCP server located on another physical network. The DHCP Relay Agent takes DHCP messages from DHCP clients and forwards them to the IP address of DHCP servers. The responses from the DHCP servers are sent to the IP address of the DHCP Relay Agent, which then forwards them to the DHCP client.
Q259. Which of the following encryptions is used with flash drives?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Full disk encryption
B. Virtual disk encryption
C. Volume encryption
D. File/folder encryption
Explanation: Both volume encryption and file/folder encryption can be used with flash drives.Volume encryption works on Desktop and laptop computers, volume-based removable media, e.g., USB flash drives. It provides the same protection as virtual disk encryption, but for a volume instead of a container. It works for all data in the volume including data files, system files, residual data, and metadata.File/folder encryption works on all types of end user devices. It protects individual files/folders (data files only). Answer: A is incorrect. The full disk encryption (FDE) is good for laptop and desktop computers. It protects all data on the media such as data files, system files, residual data, and metadata. All the information encrypted by full disk encryption is protected, assuming that pre-boot authentication is required.
Q260. Which of the following terms refers to manual assignment of IP addresses to computers and devices?
B. Static IP addressing
C. Dynamic IP addressing
Explanation: The Static IP addressing is the term used for manual assignment of IP addresses to computers and devices. Answer: A is incorrect. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a Windows feature, which allows household users and small business users to create a functional single subnet TCP/IP network without manually configuring the TCP/IP protocol or setting up a DHCP server. Answer: C is incorrect. Dynamic IP addressing is used when IP addresses are assigned to computers and devices automatically by the DHCP service or APIPA. Answer: D is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected.
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