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2016 Jun HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:
Q281. Which of the following types of displays occupy less space on a desk? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Explanation: LED and LCD displays occupy less space on a desk. The Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) is an electronically modulated optical amplification shaped into a thin, flat display device made up of any number of color or monochrome pixels arrayed in front of a light source (backlight) or reflector. It is often utilized in battery-powered electronic devices because it uses very small amounts of electric power. Answer: A, B are incorrect. CRT and Mercury displays take lots of space as compared to LCD and LED displays.
Q282. Which of the following agencies is responsible for accrediting, certifying and evaluating health care organizations to insure they are providing the highest quality of care?
A. The Joint Commission
B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
C. Food and Drug Administration
D. Department of Health and Human Services
Explanation: The purpose of The Joint Commission is to continuously improve health care for the public by evaluating health care organizations and inspiring them to excel in providing safe and effective care of the highest quality and value. This agency also distributes accreditation and certifications to those health care organizations who meet the requirements of The Joint Commission. Answer: D is incorrect. Department of Health and Human Services is as this agency is protecting the health of all Americans and providing essential human services, especially for those who are least able to help themselves. Answer: B is incorrect. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is as the purpose of this agency is to ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education and assistance. Answer: C is incorrect. Food and Drug Administration is as the purpose of this agency is to protect the public health by assuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs, biological products, medical devices, our nation's food supply, cosmetics, and products that emit radiation, and by regulating the manufacture, marketing, and distribution of tobacco products.
Q283. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. All the computers on the network are connected to a switch device. Users complain that they are unable to connect to a file server. You try to ping the client computers from the server, but the pinging fails. You try to ping the server's own loopback address, but it fails to ping. You restart the server, but the problem persists. What is the most likely cause?
A. The cable that connects the server to the switch is broken.
B. The server's NIC is not working.
C. The switch device is not working.
D. Automatic IP addressing is not working.
Explanation: According to the question. ping the loopback address of the server failed. If pinging the server's own loopback address fails, it shows that the server's NIC is not working. Loopback addresses are IP addresses with 127 in their first octet. These addresses are used to test TCP/IP configuration. It uses a loopback driver to reroute the outgoing packets back to the source computer. Answer: D is incorrect. Automatic IP addressing is out of context for this scenario. Answer: A is incorrect. The cable connection is not the likely issue, as you are unable to ping the server's own loopback address. If the cable connection between the server and the switch was broken, you would have had to at least ping the server's loopback address. Answer: C is incorrect. The failure of the pinging of the loopback address indicates that the problem is with the NIC.
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Q284. As a healthcare IT specialist, you are asked to ensure that all images obtained from an echocardiography unit are automatically transmitted to a remote area for interpretation. Which of the following tasks are you being asked to perform?
A. Device Capture
B. Document Imaging
C. Clinical Imaging
D. Document Archiving
Explanation: Device capture is the act of transmitting medical information directly from a medical device such as electrocardiogram. All medical information transmitted via device capture must be review and validated by a physician. Answer: B is incorrect. Document imaging is incorrect as this action involves involves prepping, scanning, indexing and performing quality control on paper documents that are entered into a computerized system. Answer: C is incorrect. Clinical imaging refers to medical information that is obtained by the use of photographs or other medical imaging devices that need to be a part of the patient's permanent medical record. Answer: D is incorrect. Document archiving is the act of ensuring the documents of a patient's medical record are sufficiently stored for the appropriate length of time in a private location.
Q285. You are working on implementing a new system for sending reimbursement claims to Medicare, Medicaid and Third Party payers. Which of this HL7 segments might you be using often in your data exchange? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
Explanation: BLG is the three byte message identifier or segment for Billing in HL7, and PID is the segment for Patient Identification numbers. Both of these are going to be used often in a billing-related transaction program. Answer: D is incorrect. AL1 is a segment that refers to patient allergies and is unlikely to be used in a billing program. Answer: C is incorrect. OBR is a message segment for a laboratory order requesting observation and unlikely to be used often in a billing transaction program.
Q286. Which of the following is NOT a secure way of disposal of media having PHI data?
Explanation: Piercing media is not a secure way of disposal of media having PHI. When storage media are transferred, become obsolete, or are no longer usable or required by an information system, it is important to ensure that residual magnetic, optical, electrical, or other representation of data that has been deleted is not easily recoverable. Answer: A, B, D are incorrect. Shredding, degaussing, and sanitizing are secure way of disposal of media having PHI data.
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Q287. Your medical practice is being audited by a physician reviewer of a PPO with whom your practice has a contract. In order to determine the medical competency of all the physicians at your practice, the partners of the practice wish to review five charts from your patient files to review provider performance regarding the newer associate doctors. In this situation what do you need to do comply with HIPAA?
A. Ensure that the patients have signed an authorization to allow for their information to be reviewed by doctors other than their own doctor.
B. Copy the files and remove or black-out identifying information
C. The associate doctors are required to sign a Business Associate agreement.
D. Simply make sure that the patients had signed the HIPAA privacy notification.
Explanation: Under HIPAA, as long as patients receive a privacy notification prior to treatment, they are informed that their information may be shared for the entity to carry out healthcare operations. HIPAA includes reviewing physician competency under healthcare operations.
Answer: A is incorrect. Authorizations are signed only in certain instances that usually fall outside of the treatment, healthcare operations, and payment functions of an entity. Answer: B is incorrect. It is unnecessary under HIPAA since healthcare operations allow for this sharing of information.
Answer: C is incorrect. Business Associates are those individuals or entities outside a covered entity. In this case, the physicians are within the covered entity.
Q288. Which of the following refers to medical information that is protected, but contains nothing regarding the patient's illness or treatment?
A. Individually Identifiable Health Information
B. Demographic Health Information
C. Archived Health Information
D. De-Indentified Health Information
Explanation: Demographic Health Information is a part of individually identifiable health information, it contains no information regarding and individual's illness or treatment. Demographic information is the patient's name, date of birth, address, social security number, insurance information and contact information. Answer: A is incorrect. Individually Identifiable Health Information is incorrect as this is information, including demographic information that relates to the individual's past, present or future physical or mental health or condition, the provision of health care to an individual or the past, present or future payment of health care provisions. Answer: D is incorrect. De-identified health information is incorrect as this information requires removal of all data in which a patient can be identified such as name, date of birth, social security number and address. Answer: C is incorrect. Archived Health Information is incorrect as this is health information that has been stored on some sort of media such as a compact disc, dvd or videotape.
Q289. You choose to have your gallbladder removed at a hospital that provides radiological services and laboratory services as well as surgical services. What type of medical facility have you chosen for your care?
A. General Hospital
B. Specialty Hospital
C. Rehabilitation Hospital
D. Psychiatric Hospital
Explanation: According to the American Hospital Association, a general hospital is a hospital that is required to provide diagnosis and treatment for medical services which include Radiology, laboratory services and surgical services. Answer: B is incorrect. Specialty hospital is incorrect as this type of hospital is required to provide treatment for specific disorders such as cancer, burns or women's health. Answer: C is incorrect. Rehabilitation hospitals is incorrect as this type of hospital is required to provide diagnosis, treatment, restorative and adjustment services for individuals who are disabled. Answer: D is incorrect. Psychiatric hospital is incorrect as this type of hospital is required to provide diagnosis and treatment for individuals who are diagnosed with mental illness.
Q290. Which of the following are the features of SSH? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SSH uses the client-server model.
B. SSH is used primarily on Linux and UNIX based systems.
C. SSH and Telnet can be configured simultaneously.
D. SSH uses public-key cryptography to authenticate the remote computer.
Explanation: Following are the basic features of Secure Shell (SSH):SSH uses public-key cryptography to authenticate the remote computer and allow the remote computer to authenticate the user, if necessary. SSH is typically used to log into a remote machine and execute commands, but it also supports tunneling, forwarding TCP ports and X11 connections; it can transfer files using the associated SFTP or SCP protocols. SSH uses the client-server model. The standard TCP port 22 has been assigned for contacting SSH servers. An SSH client program is typically used for establishing connections to an SSH daemon accepting remote connections. Both are commonly present on most modern operating systems, including Mac OS X, Linux, FreeBSD, Solaris and OpenVMS. Proprietary, freeware and open source versions of various levels of complexity and completeness exist. SSH is used primarily on Linux and UNIX based systems. Answer: C is incorrect. Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
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