The actual CompTIA professionals have the possibility to get an expert within it field should also get to the maximum of capacity as well as good results, so they have to be involved in different CompTIA accreditation tests. CompTIA HIT-001 named CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam will be stepping-stone to examine the actual candidates information as well as ability inside a relevant field at work. Testking CompTIA HIT-001 on the web apply assessments can guarantee that you are able to manage these highly skilled as well as competent operates. Our HIT-001 apply examination offers the genuine questions, making certain a person move the real HIT-001 examination together with best grades.
2016 Jun HIT-001 free download
Q301. A nursing station in one area of a hospital wishes to set up a chat program to discuss patient details with the pharmacy whenever there is a problem with the computerized physician order entry program. While you are working on a separate issue, a nurse asks you to install such a program. Is this possible? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. No. The computerized physician order entry program should already have a system in place to deal with potential problems.
B. No, no unauthorized software should not be installed on a workstation without the approval of IT staff, the security administration, network administrator, and the Chief Security Officer.
C. Only approved secure chat programs that are internal to the organization and to not go outside the firewall, and are HIPAA-complaint could be used to communicate PHI between departments.
D. No, internet messaging systems are highly insecure, and information is in the hands of the IM providers who control user messages, logs and connection information. IM programs should not be installed on workstations.
Explanation: Internet messaging programs are highly insecure and can be easily hacked into and provide a security risk. They should not be installed on any facility computer. And any secure chat program option should not be installed until it is evaluated in detail by the system administrator, security administrator and other IT managers to see if it fits in with the healthcare organizations' needs and risk profile. Also, most computerized physician order entry programs used in healthcare have the ability to discuss problems with messages back and forth, and additional messaging service is not necessary. Answer: C is incorrect. There are secure chat programs available, but you should not install one without prior approval of the IT department, system administrator, and other management, but ant chat or IM program could be a security risk.
Q302. Which of the following types of security will be the cause of concern if the server has been stolen from the organization's premises?
A. User authentication
B. Physical security
C. Operational security
D. Information security
Explanation: Physical security describes both measures that prevent or deter attackers from accessing a facility, resource, or information stored on physical media and guidance on how to design structures to resist various hostile acts. It can be as simple as a locked door or as elaborate as multiple layers of armed Security guards and Guardhouse placement.Physical security is not a modern phenomenon. Physical security exists in order to deter persons from entering a physical facility. Historical examples of physical security include city walls, moats, etc. Answer: C is incorrect. Operations security (OPSEC) is a process that identifies critical information to determine if friendly actions can be observed by adversary intelligence systems, determines if information obtained by adversaries could be interpreted to be useful to them, and then executes selected measures that eliminate or reduce adversary exploitation of friendly critical information. Answer: D is incorrect. Information security means protecting information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification or destruction. The terms information security, computer security and information assurance are frequently incorrectly used interchangeably. These fields are interrelated often and share the common goals of protecting the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information; however, there are some subtle differences between them. These differences lie primarily in the approach to the subject, the methodologies used, and the areas of concentration. Information security is concerned with the confidentiality, integrity and availability of data regardless of the form the data may take. electronic, print, or other forms. Answer: A is incorrect. User authentication is the act of verification of a user who wants to access the system, authorized or not. With the help of this process, the administrator can identify a person and ensure that the user is trusted or not. The Siebel system supports multiple approaches to authenticate users. The Administrator can choose either security adapter authentication or Web SSO authentication for Siebel application users.
Q303. As a healthcare information technologist, there are standards in which you must abide by for managing and integrating electronic healthcare information. Which of the following is responsible for instituting those standards?
C. Health Level 7
Explanation: Health Level 7 (HL7) is an international community of healthcare subject matter experts and information scientists collaborating to create standards for the exchange, management and integration of electronic healthcare information. HL7 promotes the use of such informatics standards within and among healthcare organizations to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of healthcare information delivery for the benefit of all. Answer: D is incorrect. DICOM is incorrect as this term, short for Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine, refers to the standard of handling, storing, printing and transmitting information in medical imaging. Answer: B is incorrect. EMTALA is incorrect as this legislation legally obligates health care facilities to provide emergent care regardless of citizenship, legal status or ability to pay. Answer: A is incorrect. HIPPA is incorrect as this is the legislation designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information.
Q304. Which of the following terms is used for keeping records of backup tapes?
A. Onsite storage
B. Backup repository
C. Backup inventory
D. Offsite storage
Explanation: Backup inventory is a keeping record or indexing of backup tapes. A lots of backup tapes with no index or inventory is only slightly more useful than no backups at all. The inventory is critical to being able to perform restores in a timely manner. You can choose automate backup systems in which inventory is maintained on-line by the backup system itself. Remember, automated or manual, maintaining backup inventory should be the plan of disaster recovery. Answer: A, D are incorrect. These are types of backup storages. Answer: B is incorrect. Backup repository is a process of storing backup tapes.
Q305. You have to undergo a surgical procedure in which will required a five day hospital stay. To which of the following types of healthcare facilities will you be admitted?
A. Ambulatory Care Facility
B. Nonacute Care Facililty
C. Subacute Care Facility
D. Acute Care Facility
Explanation: An acute care facility is to a facility that offers a wide range of medical, surgical, pediatric and obstetric services that require a hospital stay of less than 30 days. Answer: A is incorrect. Ambulatory care facility is incorrect as this facility offers a variety of outpatient services which is directly overseen by a hospital, but patients to do not require a stay in the hospital.
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Q306. You have been hired at a small private practice to install a basic document management system and scanner so that the practice can start converting from paper to electronic medical records. You have a question system should be organized. Who are you most likely to talk to regarding this issue?
A. The medical assistants
B. The technical support team of the manufacturer of the system.
C. The office manager
D. The physician heading the practice.
Explanation: At a small private practice, the person most likely to make administrative decisions about medical record filing and computer systems will be the office manager. Answer: D is incorrect. Although a physician may be called in for training and their opinion, most likely the individual with the most power to make decisions with by the office manager. Answer: A is incorrect. Medical assistants will be using the new program, but they are not likely to be the ones making the decisions about how it will be set up and used. Answer: B is incorrect. Although technical support from the product manufacturer may help with installation
Q307. Which of the following is the principle used to design a work environment to promote safe, healthy, injury free work?
Explanation: The principle of ergonomics is used to design a work environment to promote safe, healthy, injury free work. Work space should allow for full range of motion including sufficient knee and leg room. Answer: C is incorrect. Biometrics is incorrect as this principle consists of methods for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more physical or behavioral traits. In computer science, in particular, biometrics is used as a form of identity access management and access control. It is also used to identify individuals in groups that are under surveillance.
Q308. The secretary at your company reports a problem in printing. She has sent a document to the printer and it does not print. She had just printed other documents successfully, minutes before. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The printer is unplugged.
B. The windows print spooler is hung.
C. The computer is offline.
D. Her computer has a bad printer driver.
Explanation: This does occur from time to time. The fact that the printer was just working moments before helps rule out a problem with the printer itself. You will need to stop the print spooler service and clear that print spooler. A spooler accepts documents from client, stores it, and then sends it to a printer when the printer is ready. Answer: A is incorrect. It is very unlikely that the printer is unplugged since she reports having been printing recently. Answer: D is incorrect. A bad printer driver would not have allowed her to have printed earlier. Answer: C is incorrect. While the printer may be offline, the computer obviously is not.
Q309. Which of the following tools are used for an indoor site survey? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Access point
B. Topography map
C. Spectrum analyzer
Explanation: Following are the tools that are used for an indoor site survey: Antenna. A wide variety of both omni-directional and indoor semi-directional antennas are used in every indoor site survey. Accesspoint. An access point is a wireless LAN device. It provides a means for wireless clients to send data to one another and to a wired network. AP connects to both wireless LAN and wired Ethernet LAN. Spectrum analyzer. A spectrum analyzer, or spectral analyzer, is a device that is used to examine the spectral composition of some electrical, acoustic, or optical waveform. It may also measure the power spectrum. The analog and digital spectrum analyzers are as follows: 1.An analog spectrum analyzer uses either a variable band-pass filter whose mid-frequency is automatically tuned (shifted, swept) through the range of frequencies of which the spectrum is to be measured. 2.A digital spectrum analyzer computes the discrete Fourier transform (DFT), a mathematical process that transforms a waveform into the components of its frequency spectrum. Answer: B is incorrect. A topography map is a tool used for an outdoor site survey. It is a detaileA, Dccurate graphic representation of cultural and natural features on the ground. These maps are based on topographical surveys performed at large scales.
Q310. You need a patient's medical information for a research project. Which type of medical information can you obtain without consent from the patient?
A. Electronic Health Information
B. Archived Health Information
C. De-Identified Health Information
D. Paper Health Information
Explanation: The HIPAA act requires no restrictions on de-identified health information. De-identified health information refers to health records, x-rays, lab results or any part of the patients permanent health record in which pertinent information has been removed so the patient cannot be identified. Pertinent identifiers include patient's name, social security number, date of birth or address. De-identified health information is usually used for research and training purposes. Answer: B is incorrect. Archived Health Information is incorrect as any patient information stored on any media, compact disc, dvd, or video tape is protected by the HIPAA act. Answer: D is incorrect. Paper Health Information is incorrect as any patient information written on paper is covered by the HIPAA act. Paper health information includes the patient's chart, prescriptions and consent forms. Answer: A is incorrect. Electronic Health Information is incorrect as all patient records stored in any hospital computer is regulated by the HIPPA Act.
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